[EL] "If ... the Washington Post ... wants to ... spend money on behalf o...
JBoppjr at aol.com
JBoppjr at aol.com
Sat Jun 2 07:29:46 PDT 2012
The point is that the same interests used to exempt certain people or
entities from the freedom of speech can be used to exempt them from freedom of
the press. So when former Justice Stevens argues that the government has an
interest in only letting people who vote to speak, then that same interest
can be deployed against the freedom of the press. Jim Bopp
In a message dated 6/2/2012 7:26:30 A.M. Eastern Daylight Time,
white at lfa-law.com writes:
This brings us to the question of the meaning of the term "press" in the
First Amendment. Professor Volokh's research and article presents a powerful
case for "press" as a means of delivery of the message. There was no
institutionalized "press" in the 20th Century sense.
The "press" as a constitutionally protected industry would present its own
distinct set of "arbitrary" line drawing, and might still given the
recognized ability to bar foreign money.
Would the Post be protected if it became a subsidiary of IBM or Exxon?
Could the Koch brothers editorialize to their heart's content without
disclosure if they bought CNN?
Could the government censor the BBC's broadcasts, or require advance
approval of partcular stories carried on US cable to protect the interest in
barring foreign money?
An exception for "institutional" press would likely lead to acquisitions
of press entities - to exploit the exception.
Sent via BlackBerry by AT&T
____________________________________
From: Mark Rush <markrush7983 at gmail.com>
Sender: "law-election-bounces at department-lists.uci.edu"
<law-election-bounces at department-lists.uci.edu>
Date: Sat, 2 Jun 2012 03:42:54 -0700
To: law-election at uci.edu<law-election at uci.edu>
Subject: Re: [EL] "If ... the Washington Post ... wants to ... spend money
on behalf of candidates"
The court touched upon Eugene's point in CU, I believe.
It's such an obvious issue... Why does the press get a free pass?
On Sat, Jun 2, 2012 at 1:36 AM, Volokh, Eugene <_VOLOKH at law.ucla.edu_
(mailto:VOLOKH at law.ucla.edu) > wrote:
Jamin Raskin writes:
No, I am not. I am saying that if the Washington Times or the Washington
Post or Haliburton or BP Oil or Massey Coal wants to give money directly to
candidates or spend money on behalf of candidates, they should have to
form Political Action Committees to do so, which is the way everything worked
before Citizens United.
But wait: Isn’t running an editorial in favor of a candidate “spend[ing]
money on behalf of [the] candidate[],” given the expense of writer and
editor salaries, any reasonable allocation of newsprint costs and overhead
expenses, and so on? Likewise, if, say, The New Republic, Nation, or National
Review wants to put out an issue – or part of an issue – praising some
candidate for office, or condemning another candidate, doesn’t that involve “
spend[ing] money on behalf of [the] candidate[]” (or against the
candidate), just as it would if Citizens United wanted to distribute a video
opposing a candidate, or if Ford wanted to send out flyers or put up billboards or
distribute a 30-second video on broadcast television supporting a
candidate?
Eugene
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