In constitutional interpretation, one starts with the text of the
Constitution. Since the First Amendment is written to protect speech, etc,
without reference to the identity of the speaker then speech is protected
without reference to the identity of the speaker. If the intent
was only to protect speech by persons, it could have been written that way, ie,
"Congress shall make no law abridging the freedom of speech by
persons." It does not say that so it is not so limited. Jim
Bopp
In a message dated 10/2/2010 6:31:10 P.M. Eastern Daylight Time,
TP@Capdale.com writes:
I
have YET to see an originalist textual argument that the drafters of the First
Amendment were speaking about corporations--although I have seen a lot of
writing about how the Founders were not fans of corporations--AND thought they
were strictly limited by their government charters to certain economic
activities. Could anyone point me to writings showing that the Founders (as
opposed to much later Courts) intended to cover corporations and not just
persons?
Trevor
Potter
________________________________
From:
election-law-bounces@mailman.lls.edu on behalf of JBoppjr@aol.com
Sent: Sat
10/2/2010 6:08 PM
To: BSmith@law.capital.edu;
election-law@mailman.lls.edu
Subject: Re: [EL] FW: Floyd Abrams &
Citzens United
Now that Dr. Bozian has found out that he is
completely wrong on what the First Amendment says, I assume he will now
concede that he is in error and will withdraw his sharp, and now acknowledged
unjustified, criticism of Mr. Abrams. Jim Bopp
In a message dated
10/2/2010 1:52:53 P.M. Eastern Daylight Time, BSmith@law.capital.edu
writes:
But if corporations aren't
people, then physically they can't speak, so you will have no worries.
They will never, with or without Citizens United, affect an election.
But maybe they can speak like a
robot! But would programming a robot to speak be protected speech?
I assume so. Why? - because a person had to program it. Indeed, we
really already have mechanical speech, as when recordings play a message over
and over, or as when a person posts a political video on YouTube that others
can then watch. I presume that a deaf/mute person would be protected in
programming a robot to make audible political statements on his behalf that,
he feels, would be an effective way for him to communicate.
Of course, the reality is that corporations are
made up of people, and people have a right to associate, and associations of
people have a right to speak. And corporate personhood does not stem
from a decision that never examined the issue. I know that's Tom
Hartmann's view, but Hartmann is neither a lawyer nor an historian, and it's
just not true. The idea of corporate personhood has existed since the
nation's founding, and is well grounded in legal theory, history, and
precedent.
Bradley A.
Smith
Josiah H. Blackmore II/Shirley M. Nault Designated
Professor of Law
Capital University Law School
303 E. Broad St.
Columbus, OH 43215
(614) 236-6317
http://www.law.capital.edu/Faculty/Bios/bsmith.asp
________________________________
From: election-law-bounces@mailman.lls.edu on behalf of Richard C.
Bozian
Sent: Sat 10/2/2010 12:38 PM
To:
election-law@mailman.lls.edu
Subject: [EL] FW: Floyd Abrams
& Citzens United
________________________________
Floyd Abrams has written a masterful exposition of the Citizens United
decision. It is a classical repetition of the fallacy of Xeno's Paradox
which had the hare never catching the tortoise. One can justify anything by
starting with a faulty assumption.
He
justifies the decision on the basis of the 1st Amendment. The 1st
amendment refers to freedom of speech of "the people". Corporations are
not people anymore than is a robot performing human feats. Corporate
personhood is a legal fiction that emerged from an interpretation of a
court's deliberation that never examined or even considered
corporate personhood.
I am impressed
only with his craftsmanship.
Richard C.
Bozian M.D. F.A.C.P.
Professor Emeritus of Medicne
University of Cincinnati.
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